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While the sheer eccentricity of it is obvious, I'm just curious about the reason for such a valuation. Is it depreciation? So it takes about 350 yrs for probably what is the world's most expensive tomb to depreciate to Re.1/- .. Damn depreciation doesn't spare anyone does it? Its like a debilitating virus.
And since I'm not an accounting expert [actually I would peg myself lower than an accounting novice], I do have other queries as well. I have done my fair share of travel across India, and have always seen that the Govt of India, through its various branches, owns the bulk of the high value real estate across all of India's cities. Does it mean that we value all of these at Re.1/- In that case, is the Govt of India undervaluing its own assets?
1 comment:
im not sure the reason is depreciation.. it may be a notional valure given to this.
no idea actually..
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